mooser745
11-14-2005, 02:45 PM
I just finished reading an article on Marilyn's death (this month's Playboy mag...which also has a great interview with Pacino and another good read on Super Bowl tix bookies.) I'm not an expert (although I admit to being a Forensic Files junkie), there were a few points that the article brought up that really make me wonder how it could have been classified as an "apparent suicide" and not further investigated as a murder. Though this might be fun to discuss...as I'm sure everyone has an opinion on theory. Feel free to add your thoughts:
1) Her house was completely bugged, under 24/7 surveillance from all sorts of people (FBI, CIA, Hoffa, etc.) So how could no one have heard, or even better, had a tape of what happened that night?
2) The autopsy report was compromised, with a majority of the substances reported "missing"...including that from her stomach (her death, they say, was caused from taking 30-40 pills...but how could that be confirmed without proper testing?)
3) She was planning to re-marry Joe DiMaggio (according to his niece), so the idea of killing herself (and not really leaving a note, or calling him) doesn’t seem to really make sense to me.
Mike
1) Her house was completely bugged, under 24/7 surveillance from all sorts of people (FBI, CIA, Hoffa, etc.) So how could no one have heard, or even better, had a tape of what happened that night?
2) The autopsy report was compromised, with a majority of the substances reported "missing"...including that from her stomach (her death, they say, was caused from taking 30-40 pills...but how could that be confirmed without proper testing?)
3) She was planning to re-marry Joe DiMaggio (according to his niece), so the idea of killing herself (and not really leaving a note, or calling him) doesn’t seem to really make sense to me.
Mike